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全国名校联盟高考《考试大纲》猜题卷(全国卷II、III)第六套模拟英语试题

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普通高等学校招生全国统一考试终极预测卷

英语试题

第一部分 听力共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In the drugstore. 2. What’s the flat like? A. It’s messy.

B. It’s tidy.

C. It’s noisy.

B. At the airport.

C. In the hospital.

3. What will they do first? A. Get the laundry.

B. Kill the birds.

C. Go to the library.

4. How many times has the man come for the book? A. Twice.

B. Three times.

C. Four times.

5. Who would be to blame for the bill? A. Father.

B. Mother.

C. Son.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6\\7题。 6. What does Edward want to do? A. Be a politician.

B. Make a fortune.

C. Work for the church.

7. How does Edward think of himself? A. Ambitious.

B. Ordinary.

C. Great.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. What does the woman dislike about the sweater? A. Its quality.

B. Its design.

C. Its maker.

9. How will the woman solve the problem?

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A. By wearing it occasionally. C. By putting on it in the play.

B. By giving it to a little girl.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a shop.

B. At the Customs.

C. On a plane.

11. Why did the man go to Europe? A. To do business.

B. To travel.

C. To shop.

12. Who will receive one watch? A. His parents.

B. His twin girls.

C. His niece.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. Who is Linda? A. The woman’s sister.

B. A music school student.

C. A violin college student.

14. What will not be paid for by the school with the scholarship? A. Entertainment.

B. Accommodation.

C. Tuition.

15. Which is the requirement of keeping the scholarship? A. Keeping a high grade point average. C. Enjoying what is taught there. 16. How do the family feel about Linda? A. Grateful.

B. Worried.

C. Proud.

B. Attending national competitions.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. How long does the carnival (狂欢节) last? A. 8 days.

B. 7 days.

C. 6 days.

18. When did the first large winter carnival take place? A. In 1984.

B. In 1489.

C. In 1894.

19. Who reinvented the festival? A. People in Quebec.

B. People in Austria.

C. People in Canada’s capital.

20. What is the real highlight of the festival? A. The city’s lifestyle.

B. Snow sculptures.

C. Night clubs.

第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

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A

Every November, Time magazine picks out what it calls “The 25 Best Inventions” of the year. Here, Teens has chosen some of the most interesting ones.

Ember Mug

It’s hard to always keep coffee at the right temperature, especially in winter. It’s too hot to drink at first, but before we know it, it gets too cold and loses all its taste. The perfect level of warmth for a cup of coffee only lasts for 37 seconds, which makes the Ember Mug a great invention. It keeps your coffee or tea at a certain temperature, anywhere between 45C and 62C, once you set it through a smartphone app.

Tasty One Top

TV cooking shows make cooking look so easy, but it’s almost impossible to get the recipes to cook the same as how the professionals cook. However, the Tasty One Top DIY cooking companion is here to help. Developed by Buzzfeed, the cooker can be connected to a smartphone app, which has more than 1,700 recipes and videos. You choose a recipe and the app will let the cooker know what to do. For example, it’ll tell you when to turn your steak or when to add certain ingredients.

Jibo

Smart speakers from companies like Amazon and Xiaomi have added a lot of fun to our lives, but they’re still just faceless speakers. However, Jibo, developed by MIT professor Cynthia Breazeal, has brought smart technology to life. Said to be “the world’s first social robot for the home”, Jibo looks like a cartoon character. Inside its “head”, there are various sensors and cameras, which allow it to recognize faces and speech. It can also set alarms, remind you of important things, tell you the weather and read news or messages from your friends and family.

21. How can Tasty One Top help people? A. By teaching people how to cook. C. By saving energy while cooking. 22. What can Jibo probably be? A. A cartoon character. C. A family assistant.

B. A faceless robot. D. A smart alarm.

B. By offering people different recipes. D. By offering different kinds of cooking apps.

23. What is the purpose of the passage? A. To advertise high-tech products.

B

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B. To introduce some new inventions. D. To tell about some “tasty” products.

C. To encourage subscription to Time.

At a farm off Narrow Lane near Lexington, Kentucky, US, old-fashioned houses look over the little red bam (富舍). The farm is mostly empty now. Jim Mahan and his family, who lived there for generations, have moved to a different plot of land in northern Fayette County. As land is sold, houses go up where there once were fields.

But during the summer, the bam is filled with city kids who have come to enjoy the farm. They’re members of the Fayette County Livestock (FCL) Club, which showcases skills as varied as cutting wool. The barn is where they look after the animals. “A lot of Lexington kids don’t know anything about farm life,” said Adria Meier, 17, who has looked after goats and sheep for three years. “There is so much to learn.”

The dozen or so children who take care of their goats and sheep at the little red bam must do a six-hour class before they get an animal. They pay for their own animals but get special club programs, such as one that provides vet (兽医) care.

Mahan lets the group use the bam for free, and the kids spend up to three hours a day there during the summer. But his land gets sold, he doesn’t know whether the club can continue. What makes the FCL Club special is that most of kids can’t just walk out their doors and take care of their animals. Most are driven to the bam by their mothers, who usually hang around and chat as their kids feed and exercise the animals.

There are valuable lessons learned along the way. For instance, don’t cut wool off your goat when there is wind, and sheep are social animals and will cry loudly when separated. “Tending to animals helps teach us responsibility. Unlike learning to shoot an arrow, caring for an animal isn’t something you can simply abandon,” said Carly Playforth, 16, of Lexington.

24. What is the requirement for kids before they get animals? A. Attend a class. C. Have varied skills.

B. Pay certain money. D. Get special club programs.

25. What do we know about the club? A. They offer services unconditionally. C. They let mothers care for animals.

B. They pay for their use of the bam. D. They allow mothers to push kids.

26. How does Carly Playforth feel about the experience? A. Suspicious.

B. Moved.

C. Appreciative.

D. Opposed.

27. What is the passage mainly about? A. Kids, life on a sold farm.

C

Many Americans spend Thanksgiving with family and friends around a table of roast turkey, sweet potatoes

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B. Valuable lessons learned on the farm. D. A club activity of caring for farm animals.

C. A special club intended for Lexington kids.

and cranberry sauce.

But for others, it’s a competition. Across the United States, there are contests to see who can eat the most pumpkin (南瓜) pie. These events start in October and continue through. Thanks giving. Elk Grove, California hosts the World Pumpkin Pie Eating Championship. Matt Stonie won in 2014 by eating 20 pounds, 13 ounces of pumpkin pie in 8 minutes. In other words, about 9 and a half kilograms. That was a “world record”, reported the Major League Eating (MLE) in New York City. Stonie won $ 5,000,

The MLE website praised Stonie: “Like a silent car at top speed driving past you on the highway; like the boxer with lightning blows; like a speedskater in a very tight bodysuit, long limbs stretching faster than the clock can tick. The great one makes it look easy.”

Some of the pumpkin pie eating contests are turned into gluttony (暴饮暴食). Others have a more light-hearted approach to pumpkin pie eating contests. Students at the Duthie Center for Engineering in Louisville, Kentucky posted their pumpkin pie eating contest on Facebook. It was a friendly social affair. In Broomfield, Colorado, their Turkey Day celebration takes a different approach. They hold a pumpkin pie eating contest, but contestants just have to eat one piece of pie (or about one-sixth of a pie) as fast as possible. There’s a 5 kilometer race and a 10 kilometer race afterwards, for those who want to lose weight.

And at Pumpkin Palooza — a pumpkin pie eating contest in Sparks, Nevada - the organize note on their website, “The winners are chosen by audience applause, so style, talent and humor are the be-all and end-all.” 28. What does MLE website praise Stonie for in Paragraph 3? A. His easy manner.

B. His effortless speed. D. His dynamic performance.

C. His huge eating amount.

29. Whose approach is contrary to the light-hearted approach? A. Major League Eating.

B. World Pumpkin Pie Eating Championship. D. Pumpkin Palooza in Sparks, Nevada.

C. The Turkey Day races in Broomfield, Colorado.

30. What do people value most in the Turkey Day celebration in Broomfield? A. Health.

B. Energy.

C. Competition.

D. Skill.

31. Which of the following can replace the underlined phrase? A. random

B. playful

D

New research from Princeton University in New Jersey found something else special about how adults - in this case mothers 一 speak to their very young children.

“We found for the first time that mothers shift their timbre,” said Elise Piazza, a postdoctoral researcher at

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C. endless D. vital

Princeton University. Piazza added, “Timbre is best explained as the unique quality of a sound. Barry White’s silky voice sounds different from Tom Waits’ poor one — even if they’re singing the same note.”

Using special equipment, Piazza and other Princeton researchers found that mothers shared similar changes in timbre when speaking to babies. The researchers tried to record the sounds mothers used with their babies at home. “We chose to record mothers playing with and reading to their own babies just like they would at home,” Piazza said. She wanted the discussions to be as natural as possible.

The research offers new ways to show differences between how adults speak to babies, compared to fellow adults. The research was not limited just to English speakers. Researchers listened to discussions in seven other languages. Mandarin, Polish, Russian, Spanish, Cantonese, German, and French.

Piazza said the research provides more information besides what is mentioned above. For example, she said, it could include how people change their timbre when speaking to friends or managers at work; how candidates speak to voters; and how people speak to their boyfriends, girlfriends or spouses (配偶).

The Princeton research follows earlier research on baby talk. In 2014, researchers from the University of Washington and University of Connecticut looked at thousands of verbal discussions between parents and babies. They compared regular speaking voices and baby talk. Patricia K. Kuhl, a co-director of the University of Washington, said researchers found that use of baby talk led to better early language development. 32. What can we infer from the underlined sentence in Paragraph 2? A. People can’t change their sound quality.

B. Barry White has a better voice than Tom Waits. C. People’s sound quality varies from person to person.

D. Their sounds appear differently with the same loudness. 33. What does the research show according to Paragraph 5? A. How people communicate effectively with others. C. How timbre improves in different cases.

B. How people speak in different situations. D. How people express ideas to others.

34. If one more paragraph is added, it should focus on . A. baby talk s development

B. examples of baby talk’s help

D. baby talk’s advantages and disadvantages

C. parents comment on the research

35. What is the general tone of the author in the passage? A. Objective.

B. Subjective.

C. Doubtful.

D. Critical.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

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Having success and being able to meet one’s goals requires many things: knowledge, a sense of direction, hard work, luck, connections and perhaps a strong belief in yourself. We accomplish our goals one step at a time, doing a little each day. 36

1. Get up an hour early.

People who get up early in the morning have a jump on the day. 37 And some studies show that the willpower and attention are strongest in the morning. In fact, the morning may be the most productive part of your day.

2. Drink a glass of water with lemon juice.

While your coffee is being prepared or waiting for the water to heat up, drink a glass of water with lemon juice. Why? Health experts say that drinking a combination of lemon juice and water first in the morning jump-starts the body’s metabolism (新陈代谢).

3. Exercise!

38 Exercising in the morning may not be for everyone. Some people like to exercise after work or at night. Physical fitness experts and trainers often suggest some form of exercise in the morning because the middle of the day is a busy time for most people. By the day’s end, you may not have the time or energy to exercise.

4. 39 Take time at the end of the day to think back on all the things that have happened. 40 And spend a little time thinking about tomorrow. It may help you to prepare if you take a few minutes to think about what you need to do the next day.

A. Make a plan for tomorrow. B. For starters, they are awake! C. Think about your day at night.

D. Some people may disagree with this one. E. So using your day effectively is important. F. Give thanks to wonderful things, if you want.

G. Well, don’t, as it is a great way to forget about the day ahead. 第三部分 语言知识运用)(共两节,满分45分) 第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

At my daughter’s presentation ceremony, the principal reminded the kids of that now-familiar truth: they could have multiple careers in their lifetimes. As I lay in bed that evening, another truth 41 me that it is not

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just different careers that 42 each child.

I 43 my own life and how much it has 44 . Five years ago, I was in an unhappy marriage, living in a house that I felt wasn’t mine. I felt 45 most of the time and not 46 my own future. Now, I live in my own beautiful apartment. My family life is peaceful, filled with 47 . My life is barely 48 . I created a whole new reality.

I have always 49 that great change is possible. I am the great-grandchild of the immigrants who left their countries with few 50 . From the shtetls (犹太人小村庄) of Russia and Poland, they created their own communities.

My parents moved to a 51 city with two small children and started a life different from that in their hometown. And my late grandmother lived two completely different lives. 52 she was a widow at 43 after my grandfather died suddenly, she 53 her daughters alone, cared for her elderly mother and 54 travelled out of her hometown. At 68, after being single for 26 years, she 55 us all by falling in love and remarrying. She and her husband, Harry, socialized 56 , and travelled around the country. Life is full of 57 We assume that our lives are linear (直线的), leading us from birth to death into a straight 58 . But they can change and have sharp 59 . They can double back and leap forward and begin another 60 altogether. 41. A. hit

B. promised B. appeal to B. tried out

8

C. attacked C. wait for

D. suggested D. call on D. reflected on D. succeeded D. ashamed D. in place of D. laughter D. acceptable D. remembered D. devices D. wealthy D. Although D. comforted D. rarely D. surprised

42. A. hold back

43. A. sought for 44. A. transformed 45 A. terrified

C. took over C. abused C. curious

B. improved B. anxious

46. A. in control of 47. A. noise 48. A. bearable 49. A. imagined 50. A. contacts 51. A. poor

B. in defence of B. devotion

C. in honor of C. admiration C. suitable C. believed

B. recognizable B. doubted

B. belongings B. remote B. Until B. raised

C. expectations C. strange C. When

52. A. Since 53. A. educated 54 A. nearly 55. A. amused

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C. accompanied C. smoothly C. satisfied

B. frequently B. annoyed

56. A. endlessly

B. casually

C. punctually C. hardships C. path

D. accidentally D. hopes D. queue D. twists D. plan

57. A. challenges 58. A. pattern

B. possibilities B. shape

59. A. tendencies 60. A. marriage

B. directions B. relationship

C. increases C. story

第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

More and more people in America are celebrating the Indian holiday Diwali.

Diwali is Hindi (印地语) 61 “rows of lights”. It is the most important holiday in India. 62 it began as a Hindu observance, almost everyone in the United States celebrates the Festival of Lights. Many people around the world 63 (begin) to do as well. The United States is one of the places where the festival is becoming more common. 64 (hold) in many parks and museums, Diwali celebrations can also be 65 (easy) found at American landmarks like Disneyland in California and New York City’s Times Square.

Neeta Bhasin 66 (found) the Times Square event. She said Indian immigrants have found great success in America but many Americans do not know much about India all 67 same. So, she decided to act. I felt it s about time that we 68 (take) India to mainstream America and show India’s rich culture, arts and 69 (diverse) to the world, she said. “And I couldn’t find a 70 (good) place than the center of the universe: Times Square.

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)

第—节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每 句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。 The Spring Festival is approaching and many students want to go travelling. But I had made up my mind not to go anywhere. The reasons are as follows. Firstly, as senior three student, I have to work hardly to be admitted to my dream university. What’s more, I’d like to do some houseworks so that my parents can have a better rest. Meanwhile, during every holiday, there are so much tourists in almost every scenic spot admire for the beautiful scenery and enjoy myself. Beside, there is a long holiday waits for me after the Gaokao. And they can travel

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anywhere I like then.

第二节 书面表达(百强校英语解析团队专供)(满分25分)

假定你叫李华,你的英国笔友Tom想体验中国高铁,于是写邮件请你帮助购买北京到黄山的高铁票。请你根据以下提示回一封邮件:

1.对他的到来表示欢迎;

2.请他将护照复印件发至你的电子邮箱; 3.当他到北京时,可以凭护照在车站取票; 4.简单介绍中国的高铁。 注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。 参考词汇:高铁CRH

全国名校联盟2018年高考《考试大纲》猜题卷(全国卷II、III)第六套模拟

英语试题答案

1-5 BAABC 6-10 CBBCB 11-15 ACBAA 16-20 CBCAB 21-25 ACBAD 26-30 CDBBA 31-35 DCBBA 36-40 EBDCF 41-45 ACDAB 46-50 ADBCB 51-55 CABDD 56-60 ABCDC 61. for 62. Although/Though/While 63. am beginning 64. Held 65. easily 66. founded 67. the 68. should take 69. diversity 70. better 改错

The Spring Festival is approaching and many students want to go travelling. But I had made up my mind not to

have

go anywhere. The reasons are as follows. Firstly, as ∧ senior three student, I have to work hardly to be admitted to

a hard

my dream university. What’s more, I’d like to do some houseworks so that my parents can have a better rest. housework good

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Meanwhile, during every holiday, there are so much tourists in almost every scenic spot admire for the beautiful many 删除for scenery and enjoy myself. Beside, there is a long holiday waits for me after the Gaokao. And they can travel Besides waiting I anywhere I like then. 第二节 书面表达 【佳作展台】 Dear Tom,

You cannot imagine how delighted I feel when I know that you are coming to China. You know a copy of the passport is a must for buying the ticket for foreigners. So you are supposed to send one to me by email. Additionally, when the ticket is booked, you could pick it up by having your passport checked upon arriving in Beijing.

Finally, I’d like to express my appreciation for your choice. CRH is the best means of transportation in China. China’s advanced technology contributes to its high speed, comfort and safety, which also enjoys great fame abroad.

Hope you will enjoy your trip on CRH!

Yours, Li Hua

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全国名校联盟高考《考试大纲》猜题卷(全国卷II、III)第六套模拟英语试题

普通高等学校招生全国统一考试终极预测卷英语试题第一部分听力共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Wheredoes
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