山东省青岛平度市2024-2024学年高一英语下学期线上阶段测试试
题
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案划在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What did the woman drop? A. Her wallet.
B. Her bag.
C. Her passport.
2. What makes the coffee taste bad according to the woman? A. The old beans.
B. The water.
C. The dirty pot.
3. What will the speakers do on Thursday? A. Have a day off.
B. Go to the museum.
C. Play basketball.
4. Why does the woman want to invite her parents? A. They like skiing.
B. They want to climb mountains. C. They can look after the children.
5. How does the man feel about the changing weather? A. Confused.
B. Annoyed.
C. Excited.
第二节: （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
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6. Where are the speakers? A. At school.
B. At a factory.
C. At a music store.
7. What does the man want the students to learn in the class trip? A. How music is played. B. How concerts are organized. C. How musical instruments are made. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where does Emma come from? A. America.
B. Japan.
C. Britain.
9. When did Emma meet Frank? A. In April.
B. In July.
C. In December.
10. What’s the relationship between Emma and Frank? A. Co-workers.
B. A couple.
C. Friends.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. The man’s eating habits. B. Their work schedule. C. The woman’s health problem.
12. What does the man think of eating at 2:00 p.m.? A. It makes him healthier. B. It makes him tired.
C. It makes him unable to concentrate.
13. How many cups of tea does the man drink in the morning?
A. About two.
B. About four.
C. About eight.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is the second time the man’s alarm goes off? A. 6:00 a.m.
B. 6:10 a.m.
C. 6:20 a.m.
15. Why does the man like to set his alarm this way? A. He doesn’t want to feel in a rush. B. He is worried about being late.
C. He wants to have more time to sleep deeply.
16. What does the woman suggest the man do about the alarm at the end? A. Set it for 7:30 a.m. it.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who lives on the west side of the street? A. An old woman.
B. Set it for 8:00 a.m. C. Stop using
B. A family of five. C. A brother and a
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sister.
18. Why do the people in the white house go to sleep early? A. They have children. B. They have early jobs.
C. They have health problems.
19. When should the people at the party stop making noise? A. By 9:00 p.m.
B. By 10:00 p.m.
C. By 11:00 p.m.
20. What’s the plan for the party at 8:30 p.m.? A. There will be games.
B. There will be food served. C. There will be a movie.
第二部分 阅读理解 （共两节，满分40分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Craziest Food Festivals sounds like a joke topic, but once you start looking into it, you’ll realize they’re everywhere---the crazier, the better.
1. Bibimbap Festival
In the South Korean town of Jeonjuloves, their “mixed rice” dish is a hearty serve of rice topped with raw beef, a rainbow of vegetables, a raw egg and gochujang sauce so much. They take four days out of October to celebrate it.
Like any festival there’s music, entertainment and magic, but making it that little bit different is the bibimbap that’s whipped (搅拌) up in a big bowl by dozens of chefs and served to over 400 people.
2. Waikiki Spam Jam
Who knew this canned meat had so much love? Well, it turns out that a can of Spam is the go-to item in Hawaii, along with a grass skirt and garland (花环). The people of Hawaii love Spam so much that they even spend a day in May giving out the best Spam, a type of cheap canned meat made mainly from pork.
3. Bessieres Easter Egg Festival
At Easter time, for those in the French town of Bessieres it’s all about an egg far less sweet.
Here they celebrate the holiday by getting dozens of chefs to make one large omelette (煎蛋卷) - 15,000 eggs strong - for the townsfolk (市民).
4. Potato Days Festival
This festival actually takes place in Barnesville, Minnesota, the US. Over the
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last Friday and Saturday in August the town celebrates its potato-growing skills by hosting potato picking and peeling contests, as well as a Miss Tater Tot pageant (盛典) for five-and six-year-old girls. 21. What makes Bibimbap festival special?
A. They take four days to celebrate it. B. The mixed rice is rich in many vegetables.
C. There’s music, entertainment and magic during the festival.
D. The rice dish needs to be mixed in one big bowl by dozens of chefs together. 22. What do we know about Waikiki Spam Jam ?
A. The spam is the most favorite for Hawii people. B. People spend one day to prepare the Jam.
C. The Jam isn’t affordable for the plain townsfolk. D. The Jam is mainly made from raw beef.
23. If you have time in August, you can go to ______.
A. Bibimbap Festival
B. Waikiki Spam Jam
D. Potato Days Festival
C. Bessieres Easter Egg Festival
B
When I was a little girl, I remember that when my dad was repairing something, he would ask me to hold the hammer, so we would have time for a conversation with each other. I never saw my dad drinking or taking a night out. All he did after work was taking care of his family.
I grew up and left home for college and since then, my dad had been calling me every Sunday morning. And when I bought a house several years later, my dad painted it by himself in the fierce summer heat. All he asked was to talk to him, but I was too busy in those days.
Four years ago, my dad visited me. He spent many hours putting together a swing for my daughter. He asked me to have a talk with him, but I had to prepare for a trip that weekend.
One Sunday morning we had a telephone talk as usual. I noticed that my dad had forgotten some things that we discussed lately. I was in a hurry, so our conversation was short. Several hours later that day I received a call. My father was in the hospital. Immediately I bought a plane ticket and on my way I was thinking about all the occasions I missed to have a talk with my dad. By the time I arrived at the hospital, my father had passed away. Now it was he who did not have time for a conversation with me. I realized how little I knew about my dad, his deepest thoughts and his dreams.
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After his death I learned much more about him and even more about myself. All he ever wanted was my time. And now he has all my attention every single day. 24. When the author was a little girl, she .
A. was good at repairing things hammer
C. often talked with her father of her family
25. What happened when the author was at college?
A. She phoned her father every Sunday morning.
B. She received a call from her father every Sunday morning. C. Her father bought her a house.
D. She often asked her father to talk with her.
26. Why did the author fail to have a talk with her father four years ago?
A. Because her father was busy putting up a swing for her daughter. B. Because she had got tired of talking with him. C. Because she was busy planning a trip.
D. Because her father often forgot what they had once talked about. 27. What can we learn from the underlined sentence?
A. The author found an excuse to forgive herself. B. The author and her father were both busy.
C. The author complained about her father’s leave without saying goodbye. D. The author regretted missing the talks with her father.
C
Princess quiz time! How did Snow White survive? How did Cinderella (《灰姑娘》) leave her evil stepmother? How did Sleeping Beauty finally wake up?
A kind-hearted person always comes to save the princess, like a prince or a godmother. Princesses cannot protect themselves, though they are very pretty and nice. They always need the help of others. However, in fact, women can’t put their life in the hands of a prince-like man. They need to work and even fight for their own happiness. The traditional image (形象) of a princess is getting out of date.
Recently, Disney, a company famous for its princess movies, posted the “top 10 rules for being a modern princess”. You will not find any rules related to beauty or looks. The rules highlight loyalty, honesty and other moral values. The rules say princesses need to believe in themselves and try their best to get out of trouble, instead of waiting for a prince’s help.
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B. liked playing with the
D. learned to take care
It’s not the first time Disney princesses have caught up with society’s development. In 1950, when people’s hearts were broken by World War II, Disney created Cinderella. In 1990, Princess Belle from Beauty and the Beast (《美女与野兽》) loved reading when education was a man’s special right in the past. Belle showed the improvement of women’s position in society. Now is Elsa from the film Frozen (《冰雪奇缘》), a symbol of modern princess.
“This is brilliant – ‘The top 10 rules of being a modern princess’ – (it’s) about time,” a group named Confidently Mom said on social media website Twitter. Princesses are still very beautiful, but inner character is the key to being a princess.
28. What should modern women be like according to paragraph 2?
A. They should care about their appearances. B. They should turn to others for help.
C. They should depend on men to change their lives.
D. They should depend on themselves for their own happiness. 29. What are Disney’s rules for a modern princess centered on?
A. Her beauty. C. Her education.
B. Her moral values.
D. Her position in society.
30. Why has Disney been changing the images of a princess according to paragraph 4?
A. To meet the need of the world peace. B. To improve girls’ education.
C. To improve girls’ position in society. D. To keep up with the development of society.
31. What does the group Confidently Mom think of the rules?
A. Doubtful. Terrible.
D
Some people would go through anything just to achieve their dream. Kasia Siwosz is proof.
Born in Poland, Siwosz began playing tennis at seven years old and developed
B. Meaningless.
C. Fantastic.
D.
the skills that helped her earn a top-50 ranking among the ITF Junior division (国际网球联会青少年赛). Siwosz wanted to do more with her life than just play tennis, which led her to seek chances that would also allow her to obtain a top education. “There’s no collegiate (大学的) sports in Poland and no culture of sports and academic study there. You can only do one, not both,” Siwosz said.
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Her desire to have a quality education led her to America to follow her dream.
While Siwosz was talented enough to begin her collegiate tennis career, she could only attend community college because she missed the deadline to apply to four-year schools, mainly due to misinformation provided in her home country of Poland.
When she had earned all her credits and was able to transfer, Siwosz made the decision to attend Baylor in Texas. Her friends from Poland put in a good word for the university, saying that it was a good fit because there were many international players at Baylor. “I thought it would be a good idea, but it really wasn’t what I thought it would be,” Siwosz said. “I wasn’t happy at Baylor. The level of tennis was high, but the academic standards were no match and I just wanted more.” After one year at Baylor, Siwosz’s luck finally began to change when she made the decision to transfer to Berkeley, which was due in large part to Lee, a former Berkeley student. Lee, who is a keen tennis player himself, met Siwosz four years ago in Texas. “I knew she was unhappy there,” he said. “I saw the opportunity for her to come here.” Siwosz visited Lee in Berkeley. “I ended up loving this place and this school,” Siwosz said. “I came here a lot over the summer, I gave it a shot and I ended up with a Berkeley education and a spot on one of the best college tennis teams in the country.”
32. Why did Siwosz want to leave her homeland for America?
A. Poland had no culture of sports.
B. Berkeley had always been her dream university. C. She wanted to play tennis and have a good education.
D. She wanted to improve her tennis skills and get a higher ranking. 33. Why didn’t Siwosz take Baylor as her first choice when she first arrived in America?
A. The level of tennis in Baylor was not high.
B. It was too late for her to apply to a school like Baylor. C. Her home country of Poland forbade her to Baylor. D. Baylor was not suitable for international students. 34. How did Siwosz feel in Berkeley? A. She was unhappy there. others.
C. She enjoyed studying there.
D. She regretted going there.
B. She had difficulty in keep up with
35. What is the main idea of the passage? A. How Siwosz realized her dream. B. How Siwosz left Poland.
C. How Siwosz became a tennis player.
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D. How Siwosz transferred from Baylor to Berkeley. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You may think that choosing to lose weight requires a lot of effort and pain. The truth is, you can lose weight, feel healthier, and look amazing, all by doing small things every day. 36 When you’re ready to lose a few pounds, check out these five small everyday things you can do.
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Believe it or not, the diameter of your dinner plate can have a dramatic impact on how much food you eat at any time of the day. The bigger your plate, the more you can fit on it, and the more you put into your body.
Use a Food Diary or App
It’s so easy to sit at your desk or on the couch eating up an entire bag of potato chips, or a full packet of cookies. 38
If you keep a food diary or app outlining what you eat, how much of it, and how many calories it has, you may be more inclined to control your food intake.
Drink More Water
39 Your body needs more water than you’re probably giving it, and you may be reading the signs all wrong. Keep a water bottle on hand, drinking water throughout the day. By doing so, you can control your appetite while also making sure your body is not lack of water.
Exercise More
It seems like a given – you exercise, you lose weight. However, it’s not only those 10-mile runs that make all the difference. 40 For instance, park further away at the grocery store, take the steps instead of the elevator and jog on the spot during TV ad breaks of your favorite show.
A. Use Smaller Dishes B. Control your food intake.
C. You have to make plans for exercise. D. All too often, we mistake thirst for hunger.
E. Many small changes can make a significant difference.
F. Exercise doesn’t have to be something you have to think about to do, and it can be fun.
G. However, if you knew how many calories were in them, you may decide to change
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your mind.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A group of graduates, successful in their careers, got together to visit their old university professor. Conversation soon turned into complain about stress in work and life． Before offering his guests coffee, the professor went to the kitchen and returned with a large pot of coffee and a variety of 41 --- porcelain (陶瓷), plastic, glass, crystal (水晶), some plain looking and 42 , some delicate (精致的) and expensive---telling them to 43 themselves to the coffee． When all the students had a cup of coffee in hand, the professor said: “If you 44 , all the nice looking expensive cups were 45 , leaving behind the plain and cheap ones. While it is 46 for you to want only the best for yourselves, that is the 47 of your problems and stress．It is definite that the cup itself adds no quality to the coffee. 48 all of you really wanted was coffee, not the cup, but you all went for the 49 cups. And then you began 50 each other’s cups． Now consider this: Life is the coffee; the jobs, money and 51 in society are the cups．They are just tools to hold and 52 life, and the type of cup we have does not change the 53 of life we live．Sometimes, by 54 only on the cup, we fail to 55 the coffee. ” 41. A. tools gifts
42. A. cheap 43. A. invite adapt
44. A. noticed 45. A. sold out abandoned 46. A. normal painful
B. unfair
C. selfish
D.
B. admitted B. taken up
C. accepted
D. relaxed
D.
B. simple B. allow
C. beautiful
C. help
D. valuable
D.
B. materials
C. cups
D.
C. broken
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47. A. way 48. A. Why
B. value C. judgement
D. source D. What D. strange D.
B. Although B. best
C. Unless C. special C. eyeing
49. A. ordinary 50. A. using introducing
51. A. position temper 52. A. improve limit
53. A. way
B. washing
B. kindness C. character D.
B. contain C. mix D.
B. pace C. direction
D. quality
D.
54. A. concentrating holding 55. A. drink
B. relying C. keeping
B. enjoy C. share D. boil
第二节：(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A wonderful experience happened to me this Saturday on my way to a mall. Two children ran towards me 56 bottles in their hands, asking if I wanted to have bottled water. It was so 57 (surprise) that I was unsure whether this was for real. I wondered if they 58 (do) fund-raising. I asked them where 59 (they) parents were and how much a bottle of water was. Then two adult women came to me and explained 60 the children were doing, “We are teaching the children 61 (give) without getting anything in return.” What a great idea!
An exchange of ideas opened up between me, the mothers and the children. We were no longer strangers to each other. We were having such a great time 62 (chat) and I ended up helping them give away the rest of the bottled water.
One young lady was so 63 (thank) that she said it was the best thing 64 happened to her all day since she had a “bad” day at work. A couple accepted the water 65 (happy) and kept on thanking us. After all was done, the children and I gave each other a high-five. I really had great fun that day. 第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节：单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 根据下列句子中所给汉语提示，完成句子。
66.This is ______ (典型的) winter, isn't it? A bit dull and lifeless, however, you can still do a lot, skating, mountain-climbing, skiing. 67. Sharks don’t ________ (已人类为目标)。
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68. A good transport strategy must _______________________(把环境因素考虑在内) 69. He was _______(决定了) finish his aim.
70. I was about to sleep ________________(这时我听到电话响). 71. I use photography to_________________(影响人们)。
72. We should judge a film in its own right, and not against its ________(原先的出处)
73. Then ________________to the stage (看到主要角色上台), I was surprised. 74. All over the world you can see kids playing ________________(心满意足地) with a ball made of plastic bags.
75. __________ (为帮助解决这一问题), I go running as often as I possibly can.
第二节:书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友Tom在中国海洋大学留学，他对中国文化特别感兴趣。你打算五一假期邀请他观看京剧表演。请你给他写封邮件，内容包括：
1.写信目的； 2.介绍京剧；
3.询问他五一是否有空，以便提前购票。 注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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高一英语参考答案
第一部分：听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1—5 CBBCB 6—10 ACBCB 11—15 AABBA 16—20 ABCAC 第二部分：阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2.5分，满分50分） 21—23 DAD 24—27 CBCD 28—31 DBDC 32—35 CBCA 36—40 EAGDF
第三部分：英语知识运用
第一节：完形填空（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 41—45 CACAB
46—50 ADDBC
51—55 ABDAB
第二节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56. with
60. what
62. chatting
63. thankful
64. that
57. surprising
58. were doing 59.
their
61. to give 65. happily 第四部分：写作
第一节：单词拼写（每小题1分，共10小题，满分10分）
66. typical 67. target human 68. take into account the environmental issues 69. determined
to 70. when I heard the phone ringing 71. make an impact on people 72. original resource
73. seeing the main character coming 74. to their hearts’ content 75. To help deal with this
第二节：书面表达：（满分25分） 参考答案(略) 一、评分原则
①本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
②词数过多或过少（80-120词为合理区间），减2分。
③评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。评分档次的确定应在内容符合题目要求的前提下侧重于语言的表达。
④评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容切题，语言表达准确、多样、连贯、得体。 ⑤拼写与标点符号是语言表达准确的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
⑥如书写太潦草，以至影响辨认，将分数降低一个档次。
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二．各档次的给分范围和要求
第六档（22-25）：优秀（漂漂亮亮）
紧扣主题，涵盖全部要点，内容充实，语法结构多样，词汇丰富，行文流畅，有较强的语言运用能力。允许有些许的错误，不影响表达。 第五档（18-21）：良好（清清楚楚）
紧扣主题，涵盖全部要点，内容充实，行文流畅。语言使用错误少，不影响表达。 第四档（15-17）：一般 （马马虎虎）
紧扣主题，基本涵盖全部要点, 内容比较充实。语言错误影响到部分表达，多数表达正确，基本达到写作目的。
第三档（11-14）：较差（糊里糊涂）
要点不全，内容不充实，行文不流畅。语言错误多，但半数以上句子正确。 第二档（7-10）： 差（一塌糊涂）
内容混乱，或主要内容偏离主题。尚能找出少数可读句。 第一档（0-6）：极差（一败涂地）
只写与内容相关的词，没有有效信息。抄写其他文章内容，与写作内容没有关系。 录音原文 Text 1
M: Excuse me, you dropped something. It looks like a wallet.
W: Oh? It’s my passport! Thank you so much for picking it up! It must have fallen from my bag. Text 2
M: This coffee tastes bad. Are the coffee beans old? Did you clean the pot? W: It must be the water. I used tap water instead of bottled water this time. Text 3
W: The museum has extra hours on Thursday this week. We could finally go after work. M: I was planning to play basketball that night, but…I can change it to Friday. Text 4
M: We haven’t seen snow in three years. Let’s drive to the mountains this winter. W: We can invite my parents, too. They can play with the kids while we go skiing. Text 5
W: The weather is changing so much! One day, it’s hot. The next day, it’s very cold. After that, the strong winds blow… It’s so confusing!
M: It’s so annoying, because I’m getting sick from it! Pass me the cold medicine. Text 6
W: My dad is coming to pick me up from school in about ten minutes, Mr. Daniels. M: Oh, good! I’ve been meaning to talk to him about a class trip. W: We’re going on a trip?
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M: Well, I was going to ask your father if he will let us visit his factory in March. He and his workers create such beautiful musical instruments! I think the music students will be excited to watch the process of making the same instruments that they play in class.
W: Oh, I’m sure my dad will allow it. He loves to teach young people about what he does. Text 7 M: Hey, Jennifer, I have some great news. Your aunt Emma will be moving here to Seattle in April with her mom. She’s coming from super far away. W: Like outer space?
M: No, she’s not from outer space. She’s from Tokyo. Do you know where it is? W: Yeah, it’s in Japan. My friend Rika’s grandmother is from there.
M: That’s right! Well, Emma was working in London for a while, and that’s where she met your uncle Frank last December. They went back to her home country to get married, and now they’re going to move back to America. W: I can’t wait to meet her. Will she be here for my birthday in July? M: She will! Text 8
W: Aren’t you hungry? You always wait until 2:00 p.m. to eat a small lunch. M: Sometimes I am. But I’ve been doing this for so long that it doesn’t bother me. I feel healthier this way.
W: You probably have no energy in the early afternoon, though! How do you concentrate at work?
M: Actually, it’s the opposite. I even work out at the gym at noon, instead of taking a lunch break.
W: Well, do you drink any water?
M: Definitely. I drink lots of water. And soon after I wake up at 8:00 a.m., I drink green tea. I have about four cups of it before noon! W: It sounds strange to me, but if it makes you feel better…
M: It does. I feel so much more alive! Text 9
M: I set my alarm for 6:00 every day. That’s when I plan to wake up. W: But you don’t get up until 8:00.
M: I know. I have a bad habit of pushing the “sleep” button. Then, my alarm goes off every 10 minutes afterward. W: For two more hours? M: Yes.
W: That’s crazy! Why do you do this to yourself? Are you worried about being late? M: No. I just don’t like to feel in a rush to wake up.
W: Well, you’re basically losing two hours of good sleep by doing that. M: True. I think it does make me feel more tired. W: You should set your alarm for 8:00, instead.
M: No, no, that wouldn’t work! I still need to feel like I’m sleeping in.
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W: Why don’t you just set your alarm for 7:30? Then it will only have three times to ring again, before you have to wake up at 8:00. M: I should try it. Text 10
Before we get the party started at 7:00, I want to remind everyone that we should still be respectful while we’re having fun. We’re not in the school gym. We’re having a party on a neighborhood street. Many neighbors will probably come out and join us for food and games, but many will stay in their homes, too. That red house on the west side of the street has a family of five. The father is a friend of mine. He works hard at a factory all day. When he gets home, he spends a couple of hours playing with his family and then goes to sleep early. In the white house directly across the street, on the east side, an elderly brother and a sister live. They have some health problems, so they also go to bed early. Now, the people around here are very kind and say we can make noise until 10:00 tonight. But I want things to be quieter before 9:00. Therefore, I’ve planned to show a popular movie on a big screen at 8:30 this evening.
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山东省青岛平度市2024 - 2024学年高一英语下学期线上阶段测试试题
